EMT Practice Test
1. Question Content...
Question1: Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.
Question3: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
Question4: What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
Question6: Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
Question7: Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.
Question8: Office mode means that:
Question11: Which one of the following is TRUE?
Question13: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
Question15: Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule mean?
Question16: How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
Question17: Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
Question18: Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?
Question19: What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?
Question21: In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?
Question23: What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
Question27: Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
Question29: Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?
Question33: What are the advantages of a "shared policy" in R80?
Question34: When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:
Question40: How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
Question41: Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?
Question42: By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?
Question43: Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?
Question44: Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packer acceleration?
Question49: Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:
Question50: Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?
Question51: What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?
Question52: What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?
Question53: What are the two high availability modes?
Question54: What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?
Question56: Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
Question60: Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?
Question62: What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
Question64: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
Question65: R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:
Question71: When should you generate new licenses?
Question73: How do you manage Gaia?
Question75: What SmartEvent component creates events?
Question79: What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?
Question81: Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?
Question82: How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?
Question83: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
Question87: Which NAT rules are prioritized first?
Question88: What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?
Question89: Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.
Question95: Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?
Question97: Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?
Question99: What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?
Question101: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?
Question103: What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?
Question107: What happens if the identity of a user is known?
Question110: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?








